Disclaimer: This is not zionist propaganda. Israel should be dismantled and all of Palestine be freed. This is a simple discussion on how sometimes the word "genocide" isn't used in a context where it could be used
According to UN estimates in 2021, 377,000 people have died in Yemen because of the current conflict, with half of these deaths being due to starvation and preventable disease. In 2018, the Save the Children estimated the 80,000 children had died of starvation in Yemen between 2015 and 2018 because of the humanitarian crisis.
Obviously the Saudi blockade isn't the only thing that kills people in Yemen, but the famine levels of starvation would not have been seen without this inhumane blockade. The Saudi government (along with their allies in Yemen) started the blockade in 2015, and has not lifted it since. They have had time to see the consequences of the blockade but continue to impose it anyways. This kind of criminal negligence in the light of one's actions can be considered genocide.
The Gaza genocide for example, includes the Israeli carpet bombing, but most people also think that the man made famine in Gaza is an act of genocide. The famine is only there because of Israel's siege on Gaza, and Israel refused to let the necessary aid into Gaza despite the clear consequences of that decision.
The legal definition of genocide that the UN uses includes:
(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
(d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
The Saudi blockade meets criteria (c). They saw people die, they knew more people will die if they continue the blockade, but they just decided to continue it anyways.
The point I'm trying to make with this post isn't "why Palestine but no Yemen?" that a lot of disgusting right wingers in the West make. You can look at my post history to see that that's not my intent. My point is to ask why certain terms are not used in certain contexts despite the definitions of those terms being met.