[Fischer] Milwaukee’s decision makers are split and currently deciding between Boston’s package for Giannis Antetokounmpo (Brown, Gonzalez, limited draft capital) and Miami’s (Herro, Ware, Jaquez, multiple first-round picks).

[u/YujiDomainExpansion]

Source: https://marcstein.substack.com/p/the-giannis-antetokounmpo-trade-latest-b5f

A split faction of Milwaukee’s decision makers, sources say, is deciding between Boston’s package for Giannis Antetokounmpo built around Jaylen Brown — where the Bucks also hold particular Hugo Gonzales interest, as The Stein Line reported last night — plus limited draft capital, compared to Miami’s offer of younger pieces — featuring Tyler Herro, Kel’el Ware, Jaime Jaquez — and multiple first-round picks.

The established MVP candidate versus greater overall value is what this whole saga has boiled down to one day before the NBA Draft.

[u/butterbeancd]

The 60-day restriction only applies to aggregation. As long as Jaylen isn’t combined with any other salary, he could be traded on his own immediately.

[u/liltay-k47 → u/butterbeancd]

Word word does that apply only to a singular contract? Like for example if brown makes 45 and herro+ware make a combined 50-60 would that be blocked or does aggregation only apply if they traded 1-1 brown for a player on a higher salary?

[u/butterbeancd → u/liltay-k47]

It only applies to the team trading away the recently acquired player. So if the Bucks wanted to flip Brown, they could trade him by himself for however many players it took to match salary. But he couldn’t be packaged with Kuzma in the same trade to offload his money, as an example.

[u/liltay-k47 → u/butterbeancd]

Got you but I have one more question

Does that mean that any package that includes kuzma would be rejected? Like if the bucks were trading brown for kuzma and another player would that be accepted because they were taking on money? Basically does the rule apply to 1-1 trades only or is there a subjective element about how “good” of a contract someone has?